Mark_w Posted 20 July 2012 Posted 20 July 2012 Really, because Evra and the FA disagree with you: Your arguement is partly that cultural differences are the reason for Suarez using the language he did. He has since addmitted saying that language. I'd love to know then why straight after the incedent it was denied when he could have quite easily explained that he didn't understand the racist connotations and apologised, why did he not do that? Why if Evra 'snubbed his hand shake', did he not make a point after Evra grabbed him to shake his hand straight away? Maybe there is an explenation for those things or I am wrong, I can't say I'm as obsessed about it as you seem to be, but Suarez comes across to me as looking, very, very guilty, so he probably shouldn't be bringing this up again.
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