SystonFox Posted 25 June 2009 Posted 25 June 2009 ok if this needs to be moved to the wimbledon thread thats fine, but ive searched the net and can't find an explanation to my question so wondering if any tennis fans know as a friend who i play against is confused by this. i say if you get a "let" on your first serve by the ball htting the tape and landing in the correct court you get to re-take your original first serve, we all know that. but if you get a "let" on the second attempted first serve through the same method is it another first serve or would it be a fault as i believe it would? he says he has never heard of seen this rule but i'm sure i have and it makes sense as tricky as it looks it isn't impossible to keep clipping the tape and landing it in thus becoming a "let" if anyone could shed some light or point me in the direction of it that'd be great. i've already checked the ITF Tennis Rules website.
Head Honcho Posted 25 June 2009 Posted 25 June 2009 The server can continue to take the serve each time there is a let service call.
SystonFox Posted 25 June 2009 Author Posted 25 June 2009 The server can continue to take the serve each time there is a let service call. can i ask how you know that or is it just a rule you have always played too?
Anish Posted 25 June 2009 Posted 25 June 2009 It's simple. You can have a 'let' call for an unlimited number of times until either the serve is a fault or it goes into court. Djokovic had about 4 lets in a row in his last game. If you watch tennis on a regular basis you would've noticed it by now.
SystonFox Posted 25 June 2009 Author Posted 25 June 2009 wouldn't say i watch it on a regular basis, infact virtually never! but i do play once a week. thanks for clearing it up, better start playing properly then now.
Head Honcho Posted 25 June 2009 Posted 25 June 2009 wouldn't say i watch it on a regular basis, infact virtually never! but i do play once a week. thanks for clearing it up, better start playing properly then now. We'll let you off!
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