danny. Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 can someone explain to me why 90% of people on here seem to write 'she could of', 'he should of', 'I would of' etc. in their posts? If it's to shorten things if you are posting off a phone or something then why not should've, could've etc.?
StanSP Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 They're writing phonetically i.e. how it sounds when they speak. When people say should have etc, the majority of the time it sounds like should of. As much as it doesn't make sense grammatically, they still write it because of how it sounds.
StanSP Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 It's Lestoh innit. Irks me too though. It's everywhere!
Bluefoxtim Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Why have you written 'it's' but then 'you are' in the same sentence? One has been shortened whereas the other hasn't / has not.
Libertine Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 It's everywhere! I meant the pronunciation. But yeh, other places too.
danny. Posted 11 April 2011 Author Posted 11 April 2011 Why have you written 'it's' but then 'you are' in the same sentence? One has been shortened whereas the other hasn't / has not. Preference? Isn't wrong though is it Drives me nuts. Yea me too, I'm thinking of joining up to the Grammar Police/Nazis.
Libertine Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Isn't wrong though is it Where's the question mark, douchebag?
BoneDog Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Should it be 'should have' every time then? Because I just mix up my 'have's' and 'of's' hoping that I get lucky and get it write.
Trav Le Bleu Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 stru tho innit evree body sez it like dat an then what their sayin int wong like its jus like what we is speakin an ting what rely gets me is wen peoples dun wanna us ene punctuaction which is the period an stuf lulz
DB11 Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Should it be 'should have' every time then? Because I just mix up my 'have's' and 'of's' hoping that I get lucky and get it write. Yes. Every single time.
AoWW Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Should it be 'should have' every time then? Because I just mix up my 'have's' and 'of's' hoping that I get lucky and get it write. Yes, and you're one of the worst offenders.
Libertine Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Yes, and you're one of the worst offenders. I just know you've got a list of... worst... grammar doing... folk.
Trav Le Bleu Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Trav just went straight to the top of the list! Innit blud
AoWW Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 I just know you've got a list of... worst... grammar doing... folk. At least I'm not Lookydo - he'd have it all recorded on a spreadsheet.
danny. Posted 11 April 2011 Author Posted 11 April 2011 At least I'm not Lookydo - he'd have it all recorded on a spreadsheet. Not a bad idea.
Parafox Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Pity English isn't taught properly in schools these days. The misplaced apostrophe gets me too. The reductive apostrophe...It's... or Mike's... are to abbreviate It is... or, Mike is... Derby's shit... and replaces the missing letter in the reductive word, in this case 'i' If something belongs to someone or is part of something it becomes Its' face... Mikes' house... the engines' power... this is the POSSESSIVE apostrophe. Derbys' shit, would be shit belonging to Derby... i.e Robbie Savage
BoneDog Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 Yes, and you're one of the worst offenders. I always see people on here talking about it but I couldn't work out when I should use 'of' and not 'have'. It used to confuse me so I just mixed them up! Now that I know the truth I shall be using 'have' on a regular basis. Oooh, hold on, what about this sentence : 'If only I'd of known sooner'. Is that a correct usage of 'of' or should it be 'have'? I'm confused again.
Haydos Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 I always see people on here talking about it but I couldn't work out when I should use 'of' and not 'have'. It used to confuse me so I just mixed them up! Now that I know the truth I shall be using 'have' on a regular basis. Oooh, hold on, what about this sentence : 'If only I'd of known sooner'. Is that a correct usage of 'of' or should it be 'have'? I'm confused again. Nope. 'have' again. It's because 'should've' when it's spoken sounds like 'should-of' when it's actually 'should have'.
Parafox Posted 11 April 2011 Posted 11 April 2011 I always see people on here talking about it but I couldn't work out when I should use 'of' and not 'have'. It used to confuse me so I just mixed them up! Now that I know the truth I shall be using 'have' on a regular basis. Oooh, hold on, what about this sentence : 'If only I'd of known sooner'. Is that a correct usage of 'of' or should it be 'have'? I'm confused again. it's HAVE. It's the reductive use of I'd've, which would be the correct way of making that statement, which, in full, would be "If only I had have known sooner" which in fact makes no sense. It should be "if only I had known sooner". There is no need for the additional "have" So it should ACTUALLY be, in the reductive, "If only I'd known sooner" The reductive "I'd've" is actually , in full, "I would have"
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